The Sin Offering Viewed as Typical of the Sacrifice of Calvary
Leviticus 4:1-12
And the LORD spoke to Moses, saying,…


This subject wilt be best considered by citing sonic of the more notable references to it contained in the Scriptures of the New Testament.

I. IT IS ENVINCED FROM Romans 8:3: "For what the Law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin," i.e., by a sin offering (the Greek term here used is that by which the LXX. commonly translate the Hebrew for "sin offering")," condemned sin in the flesh," etc. The "flesh" that was "weak" here, we take to be:

1. Not our fallen nature.

(1) The word "flesh" is used for this. It is so used in the connection of this very passage (verses 4-8; see also Galatians 5:16, 17). This circumstance has led expositors to accept the term here in that sense.

(2) But as a matter of fact, is the Law of God weak through our fallen nature? Certainly not. The Law answers all God ever intended it to answer. His purposes cannot be frustrated.

2. But the flesh of the sin offerings.

(1) These were constitutionally weak for the purpose of condemning sin. The flesh of bulls and goats is not "sinful flesh." Therefore sin could not be condemned in it.

(2) This weakness was no frustration of God's purposes, for he never intended that sin should be condemned in such flesh as theirs (Psalm 69:30, 31; Psalm 51:16; Hebrews 10:4). He intended these to foreshadow something better, viz.:

3. The Sin Offering of Calvary.

(1) This was made in a human body. Being in the "likeness of sinful flesh;" there was no constitutional weakness here (Hebrews 10:5-10).

(2) The glorious Person who assumed the "likeness of sinful flesh" was God's "own Son." Thus by virtue of his Divinity not only has he condemned sin in the flesh, but he enables us to fulfill the righteousness of the Law in the spirit of the gospel.

II. IT IS EVINCED IN 2 Corinthians 5:21: "He was made sin," i.e., a sin offering, "for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."

1. His righteousness is the righteousness of God.

(1) Because he is God himself. The Father was in him. Whoever failed to discern the Father in him did not comprehend him, did not know him (John 14:7-11).

(2) He was approved of God (Matthew 3:17; Matthew 17:5). His resurrection placed this beyond question (Acts 2:22-24).

2. This we receive, by imputation, in exchange for our sin.

(1) The transfer of the sin was set forth in the laying on of the hand of the offerer upon the bullock at the altar, while it was yet alive. The Jews give us these as the words uttered by the offerer, "I have sinned; I have done perversely; I have rebelled, and done (here specifying mentally or audibly the cause of his offering). But I return by repentance before thee, and let this be my expiation."

(2) The substitute is then condemned while the offerer is justified. Not only is he released from the obligation to die, but is taken into fellowship with God, and feasts with him upon the meat and drink offerings accompanying (Numbers 15:24).

III. IT IS EVINCED IS Hebrews 9:28: "Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin," i.e., without a sin offering, "unto salvation." The allusions here are to the sin offering of the Law. The teaching is that, whereas at his first advent he appeared in the similitude of sinful flesh for the purposes foreshadowed in the sin offering, when he comes the second time it will be in the glorious similitude of humanity, in innocence and holiness, to effect in us all the glories destined to follow upon his former meritorious sufferings (1 Peter 1:11).

IV. IT IS EVINCED IN Hebrews 13:10-13: "We have an altar, whereof they have no right to eat which serve the tabernacle. For the bodies of those beasts, whose blood is brought into the sanctuary by the high priest for sin, are burned without the camp. Wherefore Jesus also, that he might sanctify the people with his own blood, suffered without the gate. Let us go forth, therefore, unto him without the camp, bearing his reproach."

1. This passage, like those already cited, asserts generally the fact that the sin offering was a type of the sacrifice of Christ.

2. But it also points out the typical import of the burning of the body in the place of ashes without the camp. What is this place of ashes but Calvary, Golgotha, the place of a skull, which was outside the gate of Jerusalem?

3. It furthermore proves that the consumption of the body of the beasts in the fire, viz. after they had been bled at the side of the altar, foreshadowed the" suffering" of Christ. "He suffered without the camp." This suffering then being distinguished from that represented by the bleeding, it must refer to that agony of soul which Jesus suffered from the fire of God's wrath against sin.

4. Since the altar which supplies our Eucharistic feast is that of Calvary; and since the priests under the Law did not eat of the bodies of those beasts which were burnt without the camp, which were types of Christ, those who serve the tabernacle have no right to eat of our altar. Therefore those who embrace Christ and rejoice in his fellowship must, in the first place, renounce the ceremonial law of Moses (Galatians 2:19-21; Galatians 3:1-3). - J.A.M.



Parallel Verses
KJV: And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,

WEB: Yahweh spoke to Moses, saying,




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